THE REAL MEANING OF "ANOINTED" (CHRIST)

 

     It is necessary to consider the Biblical definition of "Anointed" if we are going to be able to understand most often discussed biblical topics about Jesus. In my opinion, there are few errors that have been more confusing than translating the Greek word cristoV (christos) and its derivative, "Christ."

     In reality, the English word "Christ" is not a translation at all but an Anglicizing of the Greek word cristoV.  In rendering cristoV "Christ", the KJV translators were following the theology already well entrenched in the Church of England.  Because of its universal use, it has been virtually understood by many to be Jesus' last name. Had the translators even added a "the" in front of "Christ" it would have helped greatly, such as "Jesus, the Christ."  This would have at least informed the student that "Christ" was not actually a title or last name. Alas, what could have been. The author has even retorted to those that have used the oath, "Jesus Christ!" by saying, "That's right, he is" to the consternation and puzzlement of the swearers.

     Consider this:  In the New testament,  cristoV (and its derivatives) is used 572 times (obviously a bunch) and is actually TRANSLATED but 6 times by the KJV translators and most other versions.  You may wonder why they bothered with these 6 but their reasoning is traceable.  Lets look at few of these six verses as an introduction to the subject. If you have further interest you can read more in my thesis called There Is One God  in the chapter labeled "Christology".

     The first time is found in Luke 4:18 -19 and says this:

 

The Lord's spirit is upon me.  On account of this, he has anointed (ecrise) me to announce a good message to the poor; he has sent me forth to herald a release to the captives and a restoration of sight to the blind; to send forth in freedom those who had been crushed; to herald the Lord's acceptable year. (Non-Ecclesiastical New Testament)

 

This scripture is significant because it is a quote from the Old Testament and also defines what the function of this particular "anointed" is regarding Israel.  We will examine it in some detail later but let's proceed with the others.

     The next in order is found in Acts 4:27-8.  Peter is laying the burden upon the Jewish leaders by accusing them of participating in Jesus' death.  He says,

 

For of a truth against thy holy child Jesus whom thou hast anointed (ecrisaV), both Herod and Pontius Pilate, with the Gentiles, and the people of Israel, were gathered together, for to do whatsoever thy hand and thy counsel determined before to be done. (KJV)

 

     You might wonder why the KJV renders ecrisaV "anointed" in this verse (27) rather than "Christ",  especially in light of the proceeding verse (26) where cristou is transliterated "Christ" even though Peter was quoting Psalm 2:2 and which the KJV itself renders "Anointed" in the Old Testament Psalm.

     But instead of going with "Anointed" in Acts 4:26, they give it as "Christ" and then translate ecrisaV "anointed" in Acts 4:27.  The reason is evident upon closer scrutiny.  It would be cumbersome to render ecrisaV "Christ" in the past tense.  You would come up with "Christed", and that would never do. This explains their reasoning in the Luke 4:18 verse also.

     The next use of "anointed" rather than "Christ" can also be explained in light of translator theology and the difficulty they had with the past tense.  It is found in Acts 10:38.  Peter explains to the household of Cornelius about salvation thus:

 

How God anointed (ecrisen) Jesus from Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power.

 

     In this spot, you can see the same dilemma.  You cannot very well translate ecrisen "Christed" here either, now can you?  It doesn't sound right to the ear and would mess everything up.  However, if they had wanted to be consistent in the rendering of cristoV they would have done it anyway.

     The next example is found in Hebrews 1:9, and is also a quote from Psalm 45:7. It reads thus:

 

Thou has loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed (ecrise) thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.

 

     In this instance, the KJV renders the verb "anointed" in both Old and New Testaments.  They developed a real aversion to "Christed" it would seem.  Wonders never cease, do they?

   As you can plainly see, much theology and misapplication can be bolstered by mistranslation or in this case plain anglicizing or transliterating of words. There are many other examples that come to mind if I had the room here. As previously mentioned you can find the entire discourse on the subject in my thesis There Is One God in the chapter entitled "Christology."